Regression to something (Introduction)

by David Turell, (5536 days ago) @ dhw

You can argue with equal logic, and equal inconsequentiality, that if everything has a cause, there cannot be an uncaused first cause, and so there has to be an infinite regression to something.-Exactly. 'Regression to something' equals "first cause" If there is nothing at first, there will be nothing now (Vic Stenger to the contrary). > > The 'first cause' argument is a philosophical placebo.-No, it is not. It is a logical concept.- > Why not admit that we're confronted by an insoluble mystery, and join me on the fence of the don't-knows-can't-knows? Oh, and beware of Greeks bearing gifts.-You are right. The first cause is an 'insoluable mystery', but it must be there lurking in the distant past, and a gift from the Greeks.

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